Mark 3:19b-35
Dear RTB’ers,
Today, a verse that’s always been confusing to me: But no one can enter a strong man’s house and plunder his goods, unless he first binds the strong man. Then indeed he may plunder his house. (v. 27) The verse is straightforward in itself, but its context has confused me. Why did Jesus speak this sentence? My new insight… First, the background. The scribes have accused Jesus that He is possessed by Beelzebul and that He is casting out demons by this prince of demons (v. 22b). Jesus responds with His famous “House divided” line (famously quoted by Abraham Lincoln in 1858). Then Jesus speaks that confusing sentence noted above. My understanding is that one of Satan’s demons is that “strong man” and that a demon-possessed man is his “house”. When Jesus casts out a demon, the demon is a “strong man” and Jesus is binding that strong man and is “plundering his house”; that is, Jesus is binding the demon and is freeing the man from his demon possession. He is not casting out demons by Beelzebub, but by the power of God.
Maybe…?? Your thoughts?
Blessings!
See also: